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The Thirteenth Amendment to the US Constitution provides (my emphasis):

Section 1. Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction.

Section 2. Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.

This clause seems to indicate that the legal status of chattel slave whose use had triggered the passage of this amendment was not fully abolished by it, but that this form of slavery could be imposed upon criminals as part of their sentence.

Did this ever happen?

I am very much aware of human rights issues surrounding the use or abuse of prison labor by governmental agencies and private correctional companies. This quesiton is not about that, but about true, pre-Civil War-type chattel slavery. That is, did a court ever tell a defendant something like, "We find you guilty of Second Degree Aggravated Mopery with Intent to Do This and the Other Bad Thing, Third Offense. You are hereby sentenced to a life of chattel slavery and shall be auctioned off in the town square at high noon tomorrow."?

Robert Columbia
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    You say it isn't still so? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federal_Prison_Industries – liftarn Jul 02 '19 at 06:50
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    And https://www.theguardian.com/commentisfree/2018/may/17/us-private-prisons-forced-labour-detainees-modern-slavery – liftarn Jul 02 '19 at 06:52
  • Related question given that the answer here is yes : https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/53476/when-was-the-last-time-someone-was-condemned-to-slavery-as-a-punishment-in-the-u?noredirect=1&lq=1 – Evargalo Apr 26 '23 at 07:01

2 Answers2

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Yes, but for fixed periods of (for example) six months or 1 or 2 years rather than for life. This section of the 13th Amendment, ratified on the 6th of December, 1865, was controversial from the outset. Slavery Under the Thirteenth Amendment: Race and the Law of Crime and Punishment in the PostCivil War South by Peter Wallenstein in the Louisiana Law Review (vol 77, No. 1) has this example from Maryland of the punishment of slavery being imposed:

On December 8, 1866, in Annapolis, Maryland, a crowd gathered at the county courthouse for an auction. A recent advertisement in the Annapolis Gazette had called the public’s attention to the upcoming event with the language “Public Sale . . . a Negro man named Richard Harris, for six months, convicted at the October term, 1866 of the Anne Arundel County Circuit Court for larceny and sentenced by the court to be sold as a slave. Terms of sale—cash.”

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Public domain, from unpublished congressional digest. Source: The inseparability of capitalism, racism, and imprisonment: an interview with Dennis Childs

Other examples mentioned (all black, unsurprisingly):

Continuing after ratification, a series of announcements later that month called for sales of other people, among them “a negro man named John Johnson . . . sentenced to be sold” for one year; “a negro man . . . named Gassaway Price . . . to be sold for a term of one year”; “a negro woman . . . named Harriet Purdy . . . to be sold for a term of one year”; and “a negro woman . . . named Dilly Harris . . . to be sold for a term of two years.” The charge originally brought against each of these five people— called “larceny” in the advertisement although it was actually “petit larceny”—specified the theft of a hog, for example, or of a bushel and a half of wheat. For the services of Harriet Purdy for a year, for her alleged theft of a pair of boots, a white man named Elijah Rockhold paid $34

The sentence was not for life but rather for a number of years.

Whether before or after the “end” of slavery, these “slaves” were not to be held in perpetuity, but for a period of years. Even after all black Marylanders had moved into the category of free people, the statute lost none of its ferocity, nor did it shed its racial specificity. These circumstances could exist because the Thirteenth Amendment expressly allowed state actions such as those taken by Maryland authorities.

Abuses appear to have been widespread, with Republicans at the time protesting that, although the letter of law was clear, the spirit of the law abolishing slavery was being "avoided and got around by these cunning rebels."

In 1866, many Republicans complained that former Confederates were abusing the crime exception to impose slavery even for minor crimes....Representative Henry Deming complained, “[U]nder the exceptional clause (‘except as a punishment for crime’) reconstructed North Carolina is now selling black men into slavery for petty larceny . . . .”

Lars Bosteen
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    This is not slavery, it is a involuntary servitude for a year, not much difference then current system where prisoners are rented by state to some private company . Note that person "buying" these "slaves" could not sell them further, meaning they were not chattel in classical sense. – rs.29 Jul 02 '19 at 06:35
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    @rs.29 According to Wikipedia the term is convict leasing. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convict_leasing – liftarn Jul 02 '19 at 06:48
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    @rs.29: It's the sources that use the term "slavery", so... – DevSolar Jul 02 '19 at 07:48
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    @rs.29 The terms 'slave' and 'slavery' are used in the relevant section of the 13th Amendment and in the public notice published at the time. Nor have I seen any evidence that they could not be resold within the time period of their 'sentence'. If you have such evidence, a source would be useful. Also, even in cases of 'convict leasing', individuals could be brought and sold (see liftarn's link). – Lars Bosteen Jul 02 '19 at 07:49
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    @DevSolar Yes, they use the word. So what? The word "slavery" has various meanings - sometimes its use includes time-limited servitude, but sometimes it refers specifically to indefinite ownership of a person. That's true today, and was seemingly true then, since the 13th amendment lists "slavery" and "involuntary servitude" as distinct categories, but this advert uses "slave" to mean "involuntary servant". But the question was about lifetime slavery, not involuntary servitude, which the US still has. By the definition of "slave" used here, you could point to "slaves" in today's prisons. – Mark Amery Jul 02 '19 at 11:29
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    @MarkAmery and people do: https://www.theguardian.com/commentisfree/2018/may/17/us-private-prisons-forced-labour-detainees-modern-slavery – costrom Jul 02 '19 at 13:13
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    @costrom Indeed they do. But the question asker here stated clearly that "This quesiton is not about that, but about true, pre-Civil War-type chattel slavery". And indeed that's the only interpretation under which this question could possibly be on-topic; it's not really a "history" question any more if the answer to "has slavery ever been used as a criminal punishment' is "yes, this morning". – Mark Amery Jul 02 '19 at 13:28
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    @MarkAmery that's a fair assessment. – costrom Jul 02 '19 at 13:37
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    @MarkAmery Legal documents often repeat themselves. It doesn't mean the concepts are distinct. – Martin Bonner supports Monica Jul 02 '19 at 15:33
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    @MartinBonner Hmm. You reckon "Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude" could be a legal doublet, where both terms are taken to mean the same thing yet they're both listed anyway? I can't rule that out with certainty, but I don't think it's likely; I can't find anything to corroborate it, I've never seen the legal doublet pattern used with "nor" as the conjunction, and the terms are frequently used with distinct meanings in plain English today. – Mark Amery Jul 02 '19 at 15:43
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    @MarkAmery Yes I do (and I don't accept the terms are frequently used with distinct meanings today). – Martin Bonner supports Monica Jul 02 '19 at 15:45
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    @MartinBonner Aha - a little legal research turns up the Slaughterhouse Cases, 1873, in which the Supreme Court helpfully commented upon the common usage of the day in a way that corroborates my reading. "The word servitude is of larger meaning than slavery, as the latter is popularly understood in this country, and the obvious purpose was to forbid all shades and conditions of African slavery. It was very well understood that ... the purpose of the article might have been evaded if only the word slavery had been used." – Mark Amery Jul 02 '19 at 15:53
  • @MarkAmery If anything that would seem to emphasize that the legislature intended the terms to be read the same way--that they merely invoked a nominally larger category of "involuntary servitude" because otherwise slavery would simply be rebranded that way and continue. So it was necessary to include a second term because anything categorized under that heading could be functionally equivalent to the slavery they were trying to abolish. – Tiercelet Jul 03 '19 at 16:46
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Your question is trying to be so precise that it embeds its own answer. You ask:

This quesiton is not about [the human rights abuse that is convict leasing], but about true, pre-Civil War-type chattel slavery. That is, did a court ever tell a defendant something like, "We find you guilty of Second Degree Aggravated Mopery with Intent to Do This and the Other Bad Thing, Third Offense. You are hereby sentenced to a life of chattel slavery and shall be auctioned off in the town square at high noon tomorrow."?

However, one of the salient features of chattel slavery in the US was that it was an inherited condition--any child born to an enslaved mother would be enslaved themselves. But enslaving the child would be a violation of the 13th Amendment. Therefore it would not be possible to recreate an exact replica of antebellum chattel slavery, even if you bound someone to "involuntary servitude" for life, because even someone enslaved through that loophole would not pass that status to their children.

That said, I think you're parsing this too finely. When you have no rights to withhold your labor, a three-year sentence can easily be a life sentence if whoever purchases/rents you sets you to sufficiently dangerous work. Or decides to move you across the country. Or provides so inadequately for your welfare/withholds medical attention from you such that you die during your term. All of which are ongoing processes in present-day prisons in the US. There are too many potential actions which render the distinction between de jure antebellum-style chattel slavery, and the abuses which continue in the US every day today, irrelevant.

Tiercelet
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