Source: pp 91-92, Principles of Microeconomics, 7 Ed, 2014, by N Gregory Mankiw
If you try calculating the price elasticity of demand between two points on a demand curve, you will quickly notice an annoying problem: The elasticity from point A to point B seems different from the elasticity from point B to point A. For example, consider these numbers:
Point A: Price = \$4, Quantity = 120
Point B: Price = \$6, Quantity = 80Going from point A to point B, the price rises by 50 percent and the quantity falls by 33 percent, indicating that the price elasticity of demand is 33/50, or 0.66.
By contrast, going from point B to point A, the price falls by 33 percent and the quantity rises by 50 percent, indicating that the price elasticity of demand is 50/33, or 1.5. $\color{darkred } { \text { This difference}}$ arises because the $\color{darkgreen } { \text {percentage changes are calculated from a different base.} }$
Though I calculated these 2 different price elasticities of demand and understood the last sentence, the big pictures or the deeper intuitions elude me? How can I naturalise this such difference?
What's the intuition behind $\color{darkred } { \text { This difference}}$, caused by $\color{darkgreen } { \text {percentage changes [that] are calculated from a different base} }$ ?