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Why was Jesus born of a Virgin instead of just being conceived of a Virgin?

I know the Bible teaches the virgin birth, but why did the Blessed Mother refrain from sex during her pregnancy with Jesus (9 month gestation period)? After all, she was married to St. Joseph.

Do any Catholic theologians deal with this topic?

curiousdannii
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aska123
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    The perpetual virginity of Mary is largely a Catholic doctrine. Most other Christian denominations reject it. And the Bible nowhere says that Mary refrained from sex even after the Incarnation. So if you're going to ask this question, you need to scope it to Catholicism, or at least to denominations that hold to the perpetual virginity of Mary (which, once again, mostly means the Catholic Church anyway). Also, the question in the title and the question in the body don't quite mach. What, exactly, are you asking? – Lee Woofenden Jan 25 '18 at 18:05
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    @Lee Woofenden "the Bible nowhere says that Mary refrained from sex after the Incarnation" yes it does. Jesus came into this world, and for 9 months Blessed Mary refrained from sex. Every Christian denomination I know of believes that Jesus EXISTED before birth. The Incarnation is not birth but Conception. I'm asking why did Mary refrain from sex during the gestation period. – aska123 Jan 25 '18 at 18:29
  • Humans have a gestation period of around 9 months and Jesus was not an exception. – aska123 Jan 25 '18 at 18:32
  • If that is your question, then you need to state it clearly in both the title and the body. Also, once again, unless it is scoped to a denomination, that specific question is unanswerable here. And even then it may not be answerable, because this question actually has nothing to do with the perpetual virginity of Mary, which is the belief that Mary never had sex throughout her entire life, even after Jesus was born. – Lee Woofenden Jan 25 '18 at 18:53
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    The question still is unclear. If you mean to ask why she did not have sex between conception and birth, then please say that clearly in the question. Even if, as you say, the event of the Incarnation took place at conception rather than birth, "after the Incarnation" would still include all time after the Incarnation, not just up to the time of Jesus' birth. – Lee Woofenden Jan 26 '18 at 04:00
  • @LeeWoofenden I added the Catholicism tag based on OP use of the term Blessed Mother. If OP was not necessarily asking a catholic view question perhaps that should be removed? I don’t think OP believes in perpetual virginity. – Kris Jan 26 '18 at 12:32
  • @aska123 there is a bible based reason for why Mary would refrain from sexual relations until after Jesus was born. However if you are asking fir a catholic view the dogma of perpetual virginity s going to be the majority of response. – Kris Jan 26 '18 at 15:23
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    @Kris The term "incarnation" is not used to describe the birth of Jesus, but his conception. The question is asking why the blessed mother refrained from sex in the 9 month gestation period. – aska123 Jan 26 '18 at 15:55
  • @aska123 my question is why would a believer in perpetual virginity ask why Mary didn’t have sex while pregnant – Kris Jan 26 '18 at 16:08
  • @Kris I don't see how the virgin birth can make sense without perpetual virginity so I wanted to see the Protestant explanation behind the virgin birth. Also, I do not know much about Catholic teaching on the incarnation. So I thought the question could provide me with both answers. – aska123 Jan 26 '18 at 16:14
  • @aska123 perpetual virginity dogma states that Mary never had sex and that she remained physically intact as a Virgin forever even through the process of birth – Kris Jan 26 '18 at 16:19
  • Hi @aska123 I'm seeing conflicting things in the comments here - do you want an explanation from the perspective of Catholicism/perpetual virginity, or from Protestantism/Mary went on to have sex and children? – curiousdannii Jan 26 '18 at 23:12
  • @curiousdannii The answers here are from a Catholic perspective and there is another question on the website asking it from a Protestant perspective – aska123 Jan 26 '18 at 23:32

2 Answers2

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An answer from catholic church teaching to satisfy your curiosity regarding

Why was Jesus born of a Virgin instead of just being conceived of a Virgin?

Short answer: she was conforming her will to God's. This short answer is supported by the following points that the Catechism of the Catholic Church does a decent job of explaining.

  • It is worth noting that she was fulfilling the prophesy in Isaiah Chapter 7, but that may not directly bear on your question:

    13 And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also? 14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

I. CONCEIVED BY THE POWER OF THE HOLY SPIRIT

CCC 484 The Annunciation to Mary inaugurates "the fullness of time", the time of the fulfilment of God's promises and preparations. Mary was invited to conceive him in whom the "whole fullness of deity" would dwell "bodily". The divine response to her question, "How can this be, since I know not man?", was given by the power of the Spirit: "The Holy Spirit will come upon you." { ~ As told in Luke, Chapter 1 ~ }

No carnal act was necessary for conception. Since she had not had (per scripture) carnal acts before conception, there's little reason to believe that she'd change her habits and begin to have carnal acts afterwards, particularly when she understands that she's about to become filled with the Holy Spirit1. From Luke 1:38

38 And Mary said, “Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord; may it be done to me according to your word.”

I've seen some translations render that as "according to thy will."

What is God's will in this case?

Remembering that Catholic belief is Trinitarian, the Holy Spirit's acts align with God's will by default.

485 The mission of the Holy Spirit is always conjoined and ordered to that of the Son. The Holy Spirit, "the Lord, the giver of Life", is sent to sanctify the womb of the Virgin Mary and divinely fecundate it, causing her to conceive the eternal Son of the Father in a humanity drawn from her own.

So far, after conception and before birth, no sin touches the vessel that bears Christ up to the point of birth. Since Mary is aware that something very special is going on, and she has assented to God's will in this, it is unreasonable to conclude that she would start having sex once all of the above took place and she had conceived by the Holy Spirit. (That answers why the Blessed Mother refrained from sex even after the incarnation).

CCC 507 At once virgin and mother, Mary is the symbol and the most perfect realization of the Church: "the Church indeed. . . by receiving the word of God in faith becomes herself a mother. By preaching and Baptism she {the Church} brings forth sons, who are conceived by the Holy Spirit and born of God, to a new and immortal life.

The above is supported by theological teaching and scripture as follows:
Lumen Gentium 63; 1 Corinthians 7:34-35; St. Augustine, De Virginante. 3: PL 40, 398; Lumen Gentium 64; St. Thomas Aquinas, Summa Theologica III q. 28 a. 2; Luke Chapter 1.

Given her commitment to God's will in this, remaining virgin is both a matter of consistency, and a way that Mary fulfills her role as the model of faith and adherence to will of God that the Church is to follow.

1 Matthew 1: 24-25 shows Mary still being a virgin at the time of birth, and with the marriage not being consummated until afterwards.

KorvinStarmast
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  • Matthew 1: 24-25 would help show that scripture indicates Mary was still a virgin at the time of birth. – Kris Jan 25 '18 at 17:35
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    Re: Your footnote: My understanding is that according to Catholic doctrine Mary's marriage to Joseph was never consummated; that Mary remained a virgin throughout her entire life. I don't think this is biblical, but I do think it's the teaching of the Catholic Church. – Lee Woofenden Jan 25 '18 at 18:54
  • Also, it appears that the OP's question may be much more specific than its initial wording would suggest: that it is really about why Mary didn't have sex while she was pregnant with Jesus. So much of your answer may turn out to be NAA. – Lee Woofenden Jan 25 '18 at 18:55
  • @LeeWoofenden I don't think that's right, but it's also a valid conclusion to the "ever virgin" thing even though Matthew tells us that the marriage was later consummated. I have addressed why she did not have sex after conceiving, and I think pretty thoroughly. Do you think that the ever virgin bit is excessive? – KorvinStarmast Jan 25 '18 at 19:11
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    I would suggest checking Catholic doctrine on this. My understanding is that the Catholic Church denies that the marriage was ever consummated, states that Mary never had sex, and states that Jesus' siblings mentioned in the Bible were not children of Mary. If I am wrong about this, I would be happy to be corrected, but I don't think I am wrong. – Lee Woofenden Jan 25 '18 at 19:19
  • At this point it looks like the question will be closed. But yes, given what the OP said in the comments in response to mine, the Catholic doctrine of the perpetual virginity of Mary is not relevant to the question, and that part of your answer should be removed. – Lee Woofenden Jan 25 '18 at 19:21
  • Also, guys, you must understand that God is outside of time. So when he says his son will be born of a virgin, it must be eternal because he is eternal. If she had sex after the birth of Jesus, she wouldn't be a virgin and Jesus couldn't say he was born of a virgin since he resides outside of time. – Grasper Jan 25 '18 at 20:41
  • @Grasper I removed the "eternal virgin" issue from this answer due to scope of the question. Asker wasn't asking for more than that, so per Lee's point I tightened this answer. I do not disagree with the points raised by St Augustine that I had linked to regarding De Virginante. *Please write your answer, because I am pretty sure it will tackle the question from a different angle than I did. (I say that based on your comments to date). I am looking forward to it. – KorvinStarmast Jan 25 '18 at 20:50
  • The issue is marked Catholicism, so the arguments for her perpetual virginity would include the time from conception to birth. If that is a mistake and this is a Protestant concern, well.. – Marc Jan 25 '18 at 23:00
  • The question as it stands, does not really represent the time Frame addressed either, I think edits might be happening all the time here. I'm not having a debate, it seems the question does not have it's feet on the ground anywhere. – Marc Jan 25 '18 at 23:09
  • @Grasper That's a terrible argument. God says lots of things which apply to a specific time. – curiousdannii Jan 26 '18 at 23:17
  • @curiousdannii, go study about the perpetual virginity of Mary. – Grasper Jan 29 '18 at 14:36
  • @curiousdannii I think you and Grasper would benefit from a discussion about this in chat. – KorvinStarmast Jan 29 '18 at 15:23
  • @Grasper I think you and curioudanni would benefit from a discussion about this in chat – KorvinStarmast Jan 29 '18 at 15:23
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    @Marc It seems that the change continues, and another related question has been asked. – KorvinStarmast Jan 29 '18 at 15:24
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    @KorvinStarmast I don't think so. The idea that God couldn't make true statements about the world at a particular time that would not be true at a later time is patently false. – curiousdannii Jan 29 '18 at 15:27
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Virgin during her pregnancy

She was a virgin during her pregnancy because prior to the Annunciation she took a vow of virginity:

Augustine says (De Sanct. Virg. iv):

Mary answered the announcing angel: "How shall this be done, because I know not* man?" [Lk. 1:34] She would not have said this unless she had already vowed her virginity to God.

*The Greek uses the present tense "ου γινώσκω" ("I do not know") and not the past "I have not known (up to this time)". The present tense shows that she has preserved her virginity and that she also intends to preserve it in the future; it indicates her permanent state of "not knowing man" (i.e., of not having sexual intercourse). See Mariology vol. 2, p. 236, by Carol B. Juniper, O.F.M.

Virgin during Jesus's birth

She was a virgin during Jesus's birth because

  1. this was in keeping with a property of Him whose Birth is in question, for He is the Word of God. For the word is not only conceived in the mind without corruption, but also proceeds from the mind without corruption. Wherefore in order to show that body to be the body of the very Word of God, it was fitting that it should be born of a virgin incorrupt. Whence in the sermon of the Council of Ephesus (quoted above) we read:

    Whosoever brings forth mere flesh, ceases to be a virgin. But since she gave birth to the Word made flesh, God safeguarded her virginity so as to manifest His Word, by which Word He thus manifested Himself: for neither does our word, when brought forth, corrupt the mind; nor does God, the substantial Word, deigning to be born, destroy virginity.

  2. this is fitting as regards the effect of Christ's Incarnation: since He came for this purpose, that He might take away our corruption. Wherefore it is unfitting that in His Birth He should corrupt His Mother's virginity. Thus Augustine says in a sermon on the Nativity of Our Lord: "It was not right that He who came to heal corruption, should by His advent violate integrity."

  3. it was fitting that He Who commanded us to honor our father and mother should not in His Birth lessen the honor due to His Mother.

—St. Thomas Aquinas, Summa Theologica III q. 28 a. 2 ("Whether Christ's Mother was a virgin in His birth?") c.

It is worth noting that the Council of Ephesus was in 431, so this represents an agreed belief of the early Church.

Geremia
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    To the downvoter: why the downvote? – Geremia Jan 26 '18 at 16:53
  • No idea about a down vote, but your answer really addresses only the part of the dogma idea of ever-virgin that Mary remained a virgin even in the act of birth. It doesn't address the actual OP question about why she remained a virgin after the incarnation (birth of Christ). Don't worry, however, most fail to understand the fine distinction of the ever-virgin dogma (before, during, after incarnation), but read the first sentence of your quote from Aquinas from the Council of Ephesus. – SLM Jan 26 '18 at 19:28
  • @SLM the question asks why Mary had no sex during pregnancy not after birth. OP believes incarnation refers to conception. – Kris Jan 26 '18 at 19:46
  • @Kris Thanks for the clarification. I've added a section on why she is a virgin during her pregnancy. – Geremia Jan 26 '18 at 20:02
  • I'm shocked at the amount of people that do not belive the Incarnation refferes to the Conception of Christ. – aska123 Jan 26 '18 at 22:00
  • On "not known a man" as present tense, that means in the present. If Luke wanted to convey a continued verb (not knowing), he would have used the perfect tense. So, I agree she conceived and bore to term as a virgin, but that's not the reason (a supposed vow in the past carried forward into the future). The reason is simply that is what was prophesied. The virgin will conceive and bear. If she had sex while pregnant, the virginity prophecy would fail. – SLM Jan 26 '18 at 22:53
  • I don't dispute your answer presents the Catholic view, but that is not one of Augustine's brightest comments! It's actually very very poor logic. – curiousdannii Jan 26 '18 at 23:14
  • @aska123 you should ask a new question. Something like: “according to Catholic Church does incarnation refer to conception of Jesus or to his birth?” – Kris Jan 27 '18 at 00:20
  • @Kris In the Church, it's definitely the Conception, the time gap between the celebration of the annunciation and Christmas is the 9 month human gestation time. – aska123 Jan 27 '18 at 00:27
  • @aska123 if you ask the question it will be preserved here and easily referenced. Also I think the answer may be that both the conception and birth are necessary to define incarnation to Catholics – Kris Jan 27 '18 at 01:06